Dismissing Solicitor

[poppet2 13]

If a seller dismisses his solicitor due to incompetence, could the vendor personally take charge of the solicitor's work (providing he was capable), and most important of all, would the buyer's solicitor be duty bound to accept this and any correspondence between vendor and the buyer's solicitor? 

I ask because I have known a buyer's solicitor to completey ignore the vendor's instructions that they have dismissed their solicitor, and the buyer's solicitor has continued corresponding with the vendor's solicitor re. the sale of that property, regardless! 

Edited May 22, 2022 by poppet2

[bassett one 450]

you need that solicitor that answers these questions on here jeff ? hope he reads this  as he would advise

[carosio 186]

Quote

 

Yes, I'm sure Jeffrey would be able to advise on your query.

 

I remember a quote where it was said that "a person is not required to have legal representation in order to buy a place to live".

 

In practice of course very few have the ability to do (their own) conveyancing, and your situation might depend on what's in the contract, etc.

 

 

[Jeffrey Shaw 90]

On 22/05/2022 at 15:57, poppet2 said:

If a seller dismisses his solicitor due to incompetence, could the vendor personally take charge of the solicitor's work (providing he was capable), and most important of all, would the buyer's solicitor be duty bound to accept this and any correspondence between vendor and the buyer's solicitor? 

I ask because I have known a buyer's solicitor to completey ignore the vendor's instructions that they have dismissed their solicitor, and the buyer's solicitor has continued corresponding with the vendor's solicitor re. the sale of that property, regardless! 

Yes, V can act for self whether from the start or if V's solicitor (VS) is de-instructed.

But:

a. V might have to pay VS's fees up to the point of de-instruction;

b. P's solicitor (PS) would not be permitted to give any legal advice to V;

c.  V will have major problems if sale completion also involves discharge of V's existing mortgage; and

d. PS will not be able to use the Law Society's standard Codes for exchange of contracts or for completion. Both involve undertakings on the part of VS and PS. PS would have nobody against whom to enforce if there's no VS.

Edited May 29, 2022 by Jeffrey Shaw

[poppet2 13]

Thank you Jeffrey.