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They don't have a legal right to live there they have a licence to occupy from the owners (their parents)

 

How is that different to a spouse/partner who isn't on the mortgage? Just asking out of curiosity

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How is that different to a spouse/partner who isn't on the mortgage? Just asking out of curiosity

 

A spouse or partner could claim to have contributed toward the mortgage or claim half of the equity in the property belongs to them.

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A spouse or partner could claim to have contributed toward the mortgage or claim half of the equity in the property belongs to them.

 

Once again 100% correct, but you’re never going to get through to the ‘what if?’ brigade. I suggest that the OP gets a legal opinion, I have legal expenses cover thrown in free with my contents insurance, best check their policy schedule.

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Read this, it is 100% correct.

 

Can you imagine a repossession with one legal occupant not being party to the mortgage? A little knowledge is a dangerous thing, zero knowledge of an important subject is a foolish thing to post on.

 

Wow, that must make life really difficult for banks when someone gets married after buying a house! Creating exactly the situation you just described. :suspect:

 

---------- Post added 29-03-2018 at 14:43 ----------

 

I have legal expenses cover thrown in free with my contents insurance, best check their policy schedule.

 

I'm fairly sure that doesn't cover you asking random legal questions.

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Wow, that must make life really difficult for banks when someone gets married after buying a house! Creating exactly the situation you just described. :suspect:

 

---------- Post added 29-03-2018 at 14:43 ----------

 

 

I'm fairly sure that doesn't cover you asking random legal questions.

 

I’m actually sure that it does, as that is what it is there for, if they consider that you have a case that requires more than a telephone chat they will direct you to an expert in that particular field.

 

As for your ‘wow’ question, ask a lawyer, you could do this if you had legal expenses cover. ;)

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Legal expenses means random legal questions, right.

 

I could do that anyway, I'll be having dinner with two solicitors tomorrow, but since you're the expert why are you so shy about explaining?

 

What's legal expenses cover?

Legal expenses cover, also known as family legal protection is designed to protect you against the costs of being sued.

 

Which wouldn't seem to cover "random question I thought of".

 

https://www.confused.com/home-insurance/guides/know-your-policy-legal-protection-in-your-home-insurance

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Legal expenses means random legal questions, right.

 

I could do that anyway, I'll be having dinner with two solicitors tomorrow, but since you're the expert why are you so shy about explaining?

 

 

 

Which wouldn't seem to cover "random question I thought of".

 

https://www.confused.com/home-insurance/guides/know-your-policy-legal-protection-in-your-home-insurance

 

Where did I say that I was ‘the expert’? I wouldn’t need legal expenses cover if I was, now enjoy your dinner and let us know what your solicitor friends have to say, I’m sure that the OP will be grateful for your assistance.

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I forgot to ask them actually.

 

But you had an opinion about it, so why've you've gone shy?

 

Can you imagine a repossession with one legal occupant not being party to the mortgage?

Well yes, I imagined such a scenario very easily didn't I. Person owns house and then marries. Happens all the time.

So what do you think is the big deal about it?

 

Danny is probably correct about an already married couple, but not for the reasons you've both postulated since that scenario is easy to create and impossible for banks to avoid.

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Read this, it is 100% correct.

 

Can you imagine a repossession with one legal occupant not being party to the mortgage? A little knowledge is a dangerous thing, zero knowledge of an important subject is a foolish thing to post on.

 

Please ignore this.

 

 

Any reposession is generally straight forward. If a wife/husband tried doing any sort of claim, then the lender can reclaim any costs for the reposession including legal and takeover.

Ultimately it would be the husband and wife who end up paying.

 

That said, any company who are putting a mortgage on a property in a sole name, would require an additional occupant form to be signed. This waives any legal right to stop a reposession.

If the borrower failed to note that there were further people living over than age of 17 who is not one of their children, then that would be giving false information.

Pretty simple really.

 

There are many reasons people put mortgages under a sole name, credit score and affordability if the other applicant doesn't earn money, are just 2.

It could be easier to verify just the one persons documents and then that is just a preference.

 

As for the OP, I'd suggest there is more to this story than is being relayed to you and us

 

---------- Post added 31-03-2018 at 12:11 ----------

 

it's actually the opposite, most lenders would expect a spouse to be on the mortgage regardless of income or employment. A few lenders will even decline the application if a married couple only want one of them on the mortgage. I cannot see a situation (that is not dodgy) where a spouse wouldn't be allowed on the mortgage regardless of their employment situation or income.

 

There's plenty of reasons that aren't dodgy, Danny, and I am surprised that you wouldn't know that with the line of work you're in.

Edited by Robbie Loving

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Please ignore this.

 

 

Any reposession is generally straight forward. If a wife/husband tried doing any sort of claim, then the lender can reclaim any costs for the reposession including legal and takeover.

Ultimately it would be the husband and wife who end up paying.

 

That said, any company who are putting a mortgage on a property in a sole name, would require an additional occupant form to be signed. This waives any legal right to stop a reposession.

If the borrower failed to note that there were further people living over than age of 17 who is not one of their children, then that would be giving false information.

Pretty simple really.

 

There are many reasons people put mortgages under a sole name, credit score and affordability if the other applicant doesn't earn money, are just 2.

It could be easier to verify just the one persons documents and then that is just a preference.

 

As for the OP, I'd suggest there is more to this story than is being relayed to you and us

 

---------- Post added 31-03-2018 at 12:11 ----------

 

 

There's plenty of reasons that aren't dodgy, Danny, and I am surprised that you lwouldn't know that with the line of work you're in.

 

So you think that someone who is clearly part of a family unit and in law, a contributor in kind, who isn’t party to the mortgage would sign an ‘additional occupant form’, which is actually called an ‘occupiers waiver form’. Who is going to inform the lender of their existence, when it is obvious that there is a reason for them not being party to the mortgage?

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He didn't say that he thinks she would or should sign it. Just that it's an option.

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He didn't say that he thinks she would or should sign it. Just that it's an option.

 

‘Would require’ doesn’t sound like an option to me.

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