MrSmith   10 #133 Posted April 22, 2012 There is no rule to that effect. That's an observation of finite sets. When infinite sets are examined, it is not observed.  I apologise to everyone for mentioning infinity, I didn't anticipate the discussion that would follow. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
spooky3 Â Â 10 #134 Posted April 22, 2012 I apologise to everyone for mentioning infinity, I didn't anticipate the discussion that would follow. Â Go on, next you'll be saying it was a random comment. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
Cyclone   10 #135 Posted April 23, 2012 There is no rule to that effect. That's an observation of finite sets. When infinite sets are examined, it is not observed.  Are you arguing with the wikipedia article now? I know it can be wrong, but is it? Is all the talk about the axiom of choice wrong? Or is that just one axiom that you might choose to use and do Cantors proofs only come out of using that axiom? Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
esme   10 #136 Posted April 23, 2012 I apologise to everyone for mentioning infinity, I didn't anticipate the discussion that would follow.  This is a good point, we are going off topic, we should start another thread if we are going to discuss the mathematics of infinity Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...