zwypl Posted November 8, 2011 Posted November 8, 2011 Tenancy commenced 10 June 2010, s.21 says to vacate AFTER 10 June 2011, is this a problem? as it should really say After 9 June???
Jeffrey Shaw Posted November 8, 2011 Posted November 8, 2011 Tenancy commenced 10 June 2010, s.21 says to vacate AFTER 10 June 2011, is this a problem? as it should really say After 9 June??? Read s.21. http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1988/50/section/21 If a Notice is served after fixed-term expiry, under s.21(4)(a), it has to run for at least: a. two months; plus b. to a date not earlier than the earliest day on which...the tenancy could be brought to an end by a notice to quit given by the landlord on the same date as the notice... (which would be at least one month, ending on/inc. a month-end day). So 10 June is a valid date, on the face of it.
zwypl Posted November 8, 2011 Author Posted November 8, 2011 Read s.21. http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1988/50/section/21 If a Notice is served after fixed-term expiry, under s.21(4)(a), it has to run for at least: a. two months; plus b. to a date not earlier than the earliest day on which...the tenancy could be brought to an end by a notice to quit given by the landlord on the same date as the notice under paragraph (a) above. So 10 June is a valid date, on the face of it. Thanks, but it was served during the fixed period.
Jeffrey Shaw Posted November 8, 2011 Posted November 8, 2011 Wouldn't that mean they can vacate at any point after 9th or 10th? Shouldn't it say before the10th or 11th? No. Anyway, the issue is not T's vacating- any T can vacate on any day- but L's ending tenancy.
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