Hippogriff   10 #1 Posted June 30, 2017 I've been helping (advisory role) a friend buy their first house - still in the process, it goes on - and a property has been identified. I am not a big fan of leasehold at all. I am always keen to avoid it.  This property is a new build - well, from 2009 - and is freehold. However, it has a garage building that's separate from the house, about 20 metres away, and contains about 3 garages for 3 separate properties, behind some electric gates and that part of the purchase would be leasehold.  I really dislike this and I've said so.  Is my uneasiness justified? If there was a desire to obtain the freehold of that garage in the future, would it be more like a block of flats to achieve this - is it the case that there'd be a need for all the owners to agree to do a freehold reversion together (is it collective enfranchisement?), or is it possible that each property could do it as and when they wanted, individually? Or is it a more complicated scenario that would only become clear once a Conveyancer started to review documents (probably too late?)? Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
ttparsons   10 #2 Posted July 1, 2017 As you say, the conveyancer needs to be asked to advise on any potential issues with the lease. Is the ground rent fixed? How much will it go up by and when? Are there also service charges for maintenance of the garage? Etc. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
Hippogriff   10 #3 Posted July 1, 2017 Sorry, that doesn't really help... I know all this stuff. I was asking specific questions about this kind of scenario, in generic terms - I suppose. Generally speaking, when there's a leasehold garage being sold with a freehold house the rights to turn that into a freehold garage are just the same as you'd expect, i.e. 2 years, statutory, valuation, negotiation, pay fees for both sides... or is it likely to be more complex, like a block of flats would be? A Conveyancer is not involved - an offer has not even been made. The answers to those kinds of questions (even at an expectation-setting level) would probably influence whether one was, or not. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
Jeffrey Shaw   90 #4 Posted July 5, 2017 No, there is no right AT ALL to force the landlord to sell the freehold reversion- or to extend the lease- if the lease in question is of only a garage. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
Hippogriff   10 #5 Posted July 5, 2017 Thank you so much for that. That is an eye-opener. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
Sheffield17 Â Â 10 #6 Posted July 21, 2017 Why don't you speak to LEASE - I believe they are a leasehold advisory service and its provided free of charge. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...
Jeffrey Shaw   90 #7 Posted July 26, 2017 Why don't you speak to LEASE - I believe they are a leasehold advisory service and its provided free of charge. True, but it should tell you what post #4 tells you. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites Share this content via...